Georgia Master Plumber Class I (Restricted) Exam Practice Exam
Free Practice Exam
Test your knowledge with 10 questions from our pool of 20 free questions.
- 10 questions per attempt
- 30 minute time limit
- Unlimited attempts
- A new mix each time
- Instant results
Full Practice Exam
Complete exam simulation matching the real PSI test format.
- 120 questions (same as real exam)
- 420 minute time limit
- 12 topic areas covered
- 599 questions in pool
- Detailed explanations
Georgia Master Plumber Class I (Restricted) — Practice Exam
What's on the exam
Questions per topic, out of 120This practice exam is built around the Georgia Master Plumber Class I (Restricted) licensing exam: 120 questions, 420 minutes, passing scaled score of 70. The real exam covers 12 topic areas drawn from Georgia plumbing code, gas code, OSHA regulations, business law, and plumbing math.
You have two options here.
Free practice exam: 10 questions per attempt, pulled from a limited pool. You can retake it as many times as you like. Use it to get a feel for the question style and the level of code detail the exam demands.
Full practice exam (paid): 120 questions, 420-minute timer — same format as the real exam. Questions are drawn from a pool of 569+ items, so each attempt gives you a different set. No two attempts are identical. This is the tool for serious exam prep.
Start with the free exam. If the questions catch you off guard, that tells you something important before you schedule the real test.
Comply with General Laws — 5 items
Expect questions on the Georgia Construction Industry Licensing Board (GCILB): complaint procedures, renewal requirements, and board functions under O.C.G.A. § 43-14. You need to know the Georgia 811 underground utility location law — specifically the required notice timelines and excavator obligations under O.C.G.A. § 25-9. ADA questions focus on employment obligations: reasonable accommodation, undue hardship, essential job functions, and when a medical examination is permitted. Know the difference between ADA Standards and ANSI ICC A117.1 accessibility requirements for fixtures like water closets and grab bars.
Comply with Regulations — 15 items
This is one of the heavier sections. It covers the Georgia State Plumbing Code, the IFGC 2024, OSHA 29 CFR 1926, permit and inspection requirements, state trenching law, and the Georgia State Boiler Code. Gas code questions pull from IFGC 2024 sections on appliance installation, pressure testing, and appeals. OSHA questions are specific — you need exact numbers from sections on ladder safety, trenching, flammable liquids, and fire protection. Permits for boilers get separate treatment here, not just general plumbing permits.
Work Planning/Organizing — 8 items
You'll be asked to read a bar chart, interpret a critical path method (CPM) schedule, and determine which code or instruction takes precedence when codes conflict. Takeoff questions test whether you can calculate material quantities from a drawing. Know the three scheduling methods — calendar, bar chart, and CPM — and what each one shows you. Isometric drawing questions expect you to read waste and water diagrams, not just identify fixtures.
Perform Pipe Cutting and Joining Activities — 4 items
Fewer questions, but they're specific. Know which tools cut which material: snap-type chain cutters and hydraulic cutters for cast iron, tubing cutters for copper, scissor cutters for plastic. Know how cast-iron soil pipe is joined — lead and oakum, rubber-type seals, and no-hub connectors. ASTM C564 (rubber gaskets), ASTM B813 (copper flux), and ASTM F656 (CPVC primer) are cited in the IPC and appear in this section.
Perform Plumbing Systems Installation Activities — 16 items
The largest section. Sizing water supply and drainage systems, gas pipe sizing using IFGC Table 402.4(2) and the longest-length and branch-length methods, fixture installation per manufacturer's instructions, and locating holes in structure. Air admittance valve placement requirements appear here. You need to know drain grades, pipe support intervals, and how to read plans well enough to install from them.
Perform System Testing Activities — 5 items
Know the test method for each system: air, water, and hydrostatic for water distribution; water, smoke, air, and peppermint for sanitary/drainage; air-only for gas lines. Backflow preventer certification and potable water sterilization procedures are tested. Gauge requirements and acceptable pressure increments are fair game — know your test pressures, not just the method names.
Perform Maintenance and Repair Activities — 11 items
Gas leak detection (soapy water vs. gas detector), burner cleaning and adjustment, electric water heater element replacement, drain line obstruction removal, backwater valve cleaning, and faucet repair. Relief valve inspection and venting fall partly here and partly in Safety. Know what you're looking for when you service an appliance.
Safety-related Issues — 11 items
This section draws heavily from OSHA 29 CFR 1926. Hot water heater relief valve sizing, routing, and termination. Gas piping support and testing. Backflow prevention. Personal protective equipment selection and employer requirements. Fall protection — guardrail systems, safety nets, and personal fall arrest systems, with specific load and deflection values from §1926.502. Trenching hazards and atmospheric monitoring from §1926.651.
Calculations — 5 items
Pipe offset calculations using 45° constants (diagonal = run × 1.414, travel = offset × 1.414). Volume of cylinders, rectangular solids, and spheres. Converting psi to feet of head (1 psi = 2.31 feet). Grade and percent-grade calculations for drainage piping. Fitting allowance and end-to-end vs. center-to-center measurements. Bring a calculator and know which constant applies to which fitting angle.
Comply with Business Laws — 15 items
Workers' comp, unemployment insurance, FUTA, payroll tax deposits, I-9 completion, new hire reporting, and state sales and use tax. Circular E (IRS Pub. 15) is heavily cited here — know how to classify employees vs. independent contractors, statutory employees and nonemployees, and FLSA overtime rules. Minor labor law limits appear here too.
Comply with Administrative Requirements — 15 items
Insurance types (CGL, builder's risk, equipment floater, auto), bonding (bid bonds, performance bonds, payment bonds, Miller Act), liquidated damages clauses, contracts (lump-sum, unit-price, cost-plus), change orders, and dispute resolution including arbitration. Financial management questions cover balance sheets, income statements, job cost estimating, cash flow, and accounting methods (cash vs. accrual vs. percentage of completion).
Plumbing System Design — 10 items
Sump reservoir selection, water heater sizing, boiler sizing, and specialty fixture selection for hospitals, restaurants, prisons, and industrial settings. Specialty piping — medical gas, vacuum, and compressed air — is tested here.
Question 1 — Plumbing Systems Installation
You are installing a branch-type air admittance valve in the cabinet below a residential island sink, following the valve manufacturer's instructions. The valve must be located not less than how far above the fixture drain being vented?
- A. 4 inches
- B. 12 inches
- C. 8 inches
- D. 6 inches
Correct answer: A — 4 inches.
IPC 2024 Section 918.4 sets the minimum height for individual and branch-type air admittance valves at 4 inches above the horizontal branch drain or fixture drain being vented. Stack-type valves require 6 inches above the flood level rim of the highest fixture vented — a common trap answer. Any air admittance valve also must sit at least 6 inches above insulation materials. Read the question carefully: it specifies a branch-type valve above the fixture drain, which puts you squarely in the 4-inch rule.
Source: International Plumbing Code 2024, Section 918.4
Question 2 — Comply with Regulations
A gas contractor wants to appeal a code official's decision to the board of appeals. Which of the following is a valid basis for filing the appeal?
- A. The inspection was conducted without 48 hours' advance written notice to the contractor
- B. The permit fees charged are higher than fees in neighboring jurisdictions
- C. An equally good or better form of construction is proposed than what the code official required
- D. The contractor's preferred material supplier is not on the code official's approved list
Correct answer: C.
IFGC 2024 Section 112.2 limits valid appeal grounds to three things: the code was incorrectly interpreted, the code provisions do not fully apply to the situation, or an equally good or better form of construction is proposed. Fee levels, inspection scheduling, and supplier lists are not listed grounds. If a question gives you four plausible-sounding options, go back to what the code actually enumerates — anything outside that list is wrong.
Source: International Fuel Gas Code (IFGC) 2024, Section 112.2
Question 3 — Comply with Business Laws
During non-school weeks, what is the maximum number of hours a 14- or 15-year-old minor may work per day?
- A. Ten hours
- B. Six hours
- C. Three hours
- D. Eight hours
Correct answer: D — 8 hours.
During non-school weeks, a minor aged 14 or 15 may work up to 8 hours per day and 40 hours per week. During school weeks, those limits drop to 3 hours per day and 18 hours per week. Option C (three hours) is the school-week daily limit — a deliberate distractor. Know both sets of limits.
Source: NASCLA Contractors Guide, Employee Management chapter — Hiring Minors section
The passing score is a scaled score of 70 — the number of correct answers it takes varies by exam form.
Your first practice attempt is a diagnostic, not a verdict. This exam requires code-specific recall — not just general plumbing knowledge. A first score in the 50s or 60s is useful. It tells you which of the 12 topic areas need work.
Look at your topic-by-topic breakdown after each full practice attempt. If you're losing points on Comply with Administrative Requirements (15 items) and Comply with Business Laws (15 items), those two topics alone represent 25% of the exam. Fix those before polishing areas where you're already strong.
Scoring in the low 70s on practice is a warning sign, not a green light. The real exam has different questions. You want a practice cushion — aim for 78–80% before you schedule the real test.
Retake the full practice exam multiple times. The 599 question pool means you'll see new questions each attempt, which is a better simulation of what the real exam feels like.
Wrong code section, right topic. Gas pipe sizing questions require you to use the correct IFGC table and the correct method — longest-length vs. branch-length. Candidates who know the process but grab the wrong table lose points they should have kept.
Mixing up test pressures. The testing section asks for specific pressures and gauge requirements by system type. Air, water, and hydrostatic tests have different rules. Peppermint and smoke tests are for drainage only. Confusing them costs you.
Calculation errors on offsets. The 45° constant is 1.414 for travel, but the question may ask for run or rise instead. Read what is being asked before punching numbers. A wrong constant gives a confident-looking wrong answer.
OSHA specificity. Fall protection questions in the Safety section cite exact load values and deflection limits from 29 CFR 1926.502. "I know fall protection basics" is not the same as knowing whether a guardrail must withstand 200 pounds at the top rail or a different load. Look up the numbers.
Business law guessing. Comply with Business Laws and Comply with Administrative Requirements together represent 30 exam items. Candidates from a field background tend to skip these in study.
Running out of time. You have 420 minutes for 120 questions — 3.5 minutes per question. That sounds like plenty until you hit a multi-step pipe sizing problem. Practice under the time limit so you know your pace.
| Detail | Value |
|---|---|
| Total questions | 120 |
| Time limit | 420 minutes (7 hours) |
| Passing score | Scaled score of 70 |
| Number of topic areas | 12 |
| Practice pool (full exam) | 599 questions |
| Free practice exam | 10 questions per attempt |